Rangers and paladins casting spells - what level?

[Halaster-Blackcloak]

So, in both editions rangers and paladins can cast spells. For example, in 1E rangers gained druidic spells at 8th level and magic-user spells at 9th level. The 1E PHB was silent as to what level the spells were cast at. In other words, when an 8th level ranger gains his druidic spells, does he cast them at 8th level (his current level), or does he cast the as a 1st level druid? This was a question many had in the 1E days.

In the Sage Advice column of Dragon #33, someone asked:

"Do Rangers and Paladins cast spells at their level or do they cast them as a first level? Would a 9th-level Ranger cast a spell as a 1st-level Magic-User or would he cast it as a 9th-level Magic-user?"

The answer given was:

"He would cast it as though he were a 9th-level Magic- User. I don't agree with this, but I am informed that it is correct. I still think they should cast spells as a 1st-level Magic-User."

So apparently, the Sage consulted with higher-ups (Gygax?) and was told 9th level was correct.

But then in 2E, the rules clearly state that the ranger - when he gains spell casting ability at 8th level - casts as a 1st level caster.

So...which way do you do it? And regardless of which option you pick, what is the reasoning behind your choice?

[garhkal]

I've always done it as 2e did.. My reasoning is i believe since they are 'dabblers' cause they get such a short spell list and # of spells they can cast, they SHOULD NOT go all of a suddenly, from 0 spell experience to BAM, casting spells as if they had always been doing so...

[Halaster-Blackcloak]

I prefer that method as well. It never made sense to me that when the ranger suddenly gains spell-casting ability at 8th level he is instantly able to cast at 8th level. That being said, I've never seen it to be unbalancing doing it the 1E way.